Surgery - View Kamer

Welcome to your ECN 2023 - Surgery

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1. What is the fundamental clinical sign of a traumatic posterior shoulder dislocation?

A. Attitude of arms in adduction

B. Attitude of arm in internal rotation

C. Attitude of arm in external rotation

D. Shoulder stump deformity

E. None of the above signs

2. Which of the following complications is almost never encountered after a Poteau-Colles fracture?

A. A late rupture of the extensor pollicis longus tendon

B. Severe algodystrophy

C. A pseudarthrosis

D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

E. Limited and painful prono supination

3. In pelvic fractures, which ones cause the most frequent urinary complications?

A. Fractures of the iliac spines

B. Fractures of the acetabulum

C. Fracture of the iliac spines

D. Fractures of the obturator foramen

E. None of the above answers

4. All of the following statements regarding traumatic injuries of the anterior cruciate ligament of the knee except one which

A. They can be isolated

B. They can be partial and relate only to the bundle of the ligament

C. They always cause instability of the knee

D. They can be associated with a lesion of the internal meniscus

E. They can relate to the condylar insertion of the ligament

5. All of the following complications can occur after a bi-malleolar fracture except which one?

A. Mal union of the foot.

B. Tibio-tarsal osteoarthritis

C. Pseudarthrosis of the medial malleolus

D. Necrosis of the astragalus

E. Algodystrophic syndrome

6. The state of shock during the first 24 hours of an extensive and recent burn can be explained by all of the following statements except which one?

A. Decrease in cardiac output

B. A blood volume deficit

C. Bacterial colonization

D. An increase in vascular resistance

E. An increase in capillary permeability

7. Which of the following traumatic injuries is most often responsible for circumflex nerve palsy?

A. A fracture of the clavicle

B. An acromioclavicular dislocation

C. An antero-internal dislocation of the shoulder

D. A fracture of the greater tuberosity

E. None of the above answers

8. Among the following factors all are likely to promote the appearance of esophageal cancer except which one?

A. Peptic esophagitis

B. Caustic esophageal sclerosis

C. Esophageal mycosis

D. Sideropenic dysphagia

E. Alcohol and tobacco poisoning

9. A patient presents with a typical picture of gastric ulcer perforation. You can resort to the various following complementary examinations except one which is contraindicated which one?

A. An x-ray of the abdomen without standing frontal preparation

B. An x-ray of the abdomen without preparation lying in profile

C. An esophagogastroduodenal fibroscopy

D. An opaque transit to water-soluble

E. A puncture and washing of the abdomen

10. Which of the following lesions predisposes to gastric cancer?

A. A duodenal ulcer

B. Drug gastritis

C. A gastric angioma

D. A poly gastric adenoma

E. All the answers below

11. Appendicitis without prejudging its anatomo-clinical form operated by a MacBurney incision in a young adult free of any other pathology can be complicated

A. A wall abscess

B. Evisceration

C. From a cecal fistula

D. A disembowelment

E. All of the above

12. Indicates the false statement concerning colonic diverticulosis

A. It sits more often on the right colon than on the left colon

B. It is most often asymptomatic

C. It can be responsible for stercoral peritonitis

D. It can be responsible for colonic stenosis

E. It may be responsible for pneumaturia

13. Gallstone ileus can be the result of a fistula

A. Cholecysto-colic

B. Cholecysto-duodenal

C. Cholecysto-choledochal

D. Choledocian choledoco

E. Hapatogastric

14. Only one of the following signs is characteristic of sigmoid volvulus occlusion. Which?

A. An early fever

B. An oblique meteorism

C. Blood on digital rectal examination

D. A distension of the entire colonic framework in the abdomen

E. Air levels in the colon

15. All the following signs accompany an occlusion by sigmoid volvulus except one which one?

A. Sudden onset

B. Immobile meteorism

C. Mild abdominal pain

D. Silent abdominal auscultation

E. Early vomiting

16. Concerning uncomplicated crural hernia all the following statements are true except which one?

A. It is an acquired hernia

B. It is non-existent in children

C. It is most often associated with an ipsilateral inguinal hernia

D. It can occur after a hernia repair on the same side

E. In women it is the most common hernia

17. Cancer of the tail of the exocrine pancreas is preferentially revealed by

A. GI bleeding

B. A tumor of the left hypochondrium

C. An umbilical tumor

D. Violent epigastric pain

E. None of the answers

18. Surgical treatment in case of chronic pancreatitis in adults is essential on the observation

A. Many pancreatic calcifications on plain x-rays

B. Widening of the duodenal frame with gastroduodenal transit

C. Pancreatic atrophy in computed tomography

D. From the uneven and narrowed wirsung canal to endoscopy Wirungogaphy

E. None of the above

19. In case of traumatic hemoperitoneum due to rupture of the spleen, we usually observe

A. Flank dullness

B. Pain on rectal examination

C. Radiation of pain to the left shoulder

D. All answers above

E. None of the answers above

20. The most common renal parenchymal tumor is

A. Renal adenoma

B. Adenocarcinoma

C. The angioma

D. Angiomyolipoma

E. Simple kidney cyst

21. The severity of bladder cancer is proportional to only one of the following factors. Which?

A. The importance of hematuria

B. The size and number of tumors

C. The depth of penetration into the bladder wall

D. The existence of ureteral dilation above the tumor

E. The age of the patient

22. In a man with benign prostatic hyperplasia, obstructive syndrome are dysuria and

late urinary drops

nocturia

pollakiuria

urinary burns

The decrease in the strength of the urinary stream

23. All of the following symptoms may indicate prostate adenocarcinoma except one. Which?

A. Hemospernia

B. Initial hematuria

C. Anuria

D. Thrombocytopenic purpura

E. Terminal hematuria

24. Faced with a sensitive testicular mass, what do you suggest to make the positive diagnosis of testicular cancer?

A. A scrotal ultrasound

B. A testicular biopsy

C. The dosage of ACEs

D. Surgical exploration via the inguinal route

E. Hospitalization for the heparin infusion and local care

25)A infrarenal aortic aneurysm may present with all but one of the following complications. Which?

A. GI bleeding

B. A dissection of the celiac trunk

C. A rupture in the inferior vena cava

D. Left ureteral compression

E. Vertebral erosion

26.The antero-internal dislocation of the shoulder is characterized by all the following signs one, indicate except which one.

A. Irreducible abduction

B. Branchio-thoracic ecchymosis

C. The subacromial void

D. The external ax kick

E. Filling the delto-pectoral groove

27. The Poteau-Colles fracture is usually characterized by one or more of the following signs except

A. Dinner fork deformity of the wrist

B. Ascent of the radial styloid

C. Internal projection of the ulnar styloid

D. Supra-articular dorsal pain point

E. Paresthesias in the territory of the median nerve

28. Indicate among the following signs, the one which, in the presence of a wound of a finger, allows to recognize the existence of a section of the collateral nerve:

A. Cool extremities

B. Lack of active movement during finger flexion

C. Loss of sensibility of a hemipulp

D. Loss of active extension of the 2nd and 3rd phalanx

E. Pulp hyperesthesia

29. Compared to orthopedic treatment, surgical treatment of an open leg fracture has the following disadvantages:

A. Need for repeated radiographic checks

B. Delayed consolidation

C. Risk of stiffness

D. Thromboembolic risk

E. None of the answers

30. All of the following will guide the diagnosis of a medial meniscal tear of the knee blocking except

A. Pain and its location

B. Functional instability

C. Quadriceps amyotrophy

D. The standard radiological appearance

E. The blocking

31. The mechanism usually described or mimicked by patients who have suffered a sprain of the external lateral ligament of the ankle is:

A. Forced eversion of the foot

B. Forced abduction of the rear foot

C. Forced equinovarus

D. Forced inversion of the foot

E. Forced ankle slope

32. As a complication of a severe L4 fracture, one can observe:

A. Involvement of the terminal cone with bladder disorders

B. Hematomyelia

C. An abolition of a patellar reflex

D. Cauda equina syndrome

E. None of the answers

33. Esophageal cancer dysphagia:

A. Evidence of mediastinal extension

B. Is first marked for solid food

C. Appears at the onset of the tumor growth

D. Is of capricious evolution

E. None of the above

34. Which of the following factors is usually considered to be predominant in the mechanism of gastric ulcers?

A. Acid hypersecretion of vagal origin

B. Acid hypersecretion due to excessive gastrin secretion

C. Decreased mucosal barrier resistance and/ or wall fragility

D. An increase in the number of parietal (bordering) cells in the fundal mucosa

E. Gastric atrophy

35. In the presence of a peptic ulcer disease during Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, indicate the treatment you recommend among the following surgical procedures:

A. Supra-selective vagotomy

B. Truncal vagotomy with antrectomy

C. Total Gastrectomy

D. Classic partial gastrectomy (two-thirds)

E. Upper pole gastrectomy

36. Concerning the appendiceal plastron, choose the wrong answer:

A. Is localized peritonitis

B. Is due to agglutination of intestinal loops and omentum around the appendix

C. It is often favored by antibiotics

D. Results in a mass in the right iliac fossa

E. Requires emergency surgery

37. Appendiceal peritonitis requires:

A. Emergency surgical intervention

B. Pus sampling for bacteriological purposes

C. Peritoneal toilet

D. All answers

E. No response

38. Among the different statements concerning volvulus of the cecum choose the false answer:

A. It may be secondary to lack of attachment of the cecum

B. It frequently has a sudden clinical onset

C. Vomiting is often bloody

D. The stopping of materials and gases is frank

E. The pain is often intense

39. Faced with acute generalized peritonitis, we will consider the following to be in favour of its appendicular origin except one. Choose the wrong answer

A. History of painful crisis at the right iliac fossa

B. Pain on rectal examination

C. Existence of fever at the beginning

D. The onset of signs at the level of the right iliac fossa

E. Guarding of the right hypochondrium

40. Indicate the exact proposition(s) concerning the Douglas cul de sac abscess:

A. It can follow appendicular peritonitis

B. It is accompanied by oscillating fever

C. It is the rectal examination which often allows its diagnosis

D. It may be accompanied by dysuria in humans

E. All answers

41. Complications that can be directly linked to the lack of treatment of an intra-funicular external oblique inguinal hernia include: choose the wrong answer

A. Necrosis of a small intestine

B. Chronic irreducibility

C. Necrosis of an epiploic fringe

D. Thrombosis of the ipsilateral iliac artery

E. Bowel obstruction

42. Inguinal hernia in its external oblique variety: choose the wrong answer

A. Is a congenital condition

B. Not found in the old man

C. Its diagnosis is clinical only

D. Carry a risk of strangulation

E. Its curative treatment is surgery

43. Which of the following signs is considered almost pathognomonic for advanced chronic pancreatitis?

A. Steatorrhea 10g/24 hours

B. Diffuse increase in the density of the pancreatic parenchyma on CT scan

C. Presence of calcifications in the pancreatic area visible on the X-ray without preparation of the abdomen

D. Dilatation of the canai of Wirsung on ultrasound

E. Short stenosis of the main bile duct during retrograde catheterization

44. In a patient who presented 10 days before with a blunt abdominal trauma, to confirm the diagnosis of a subcapsular hematoma of the spleen, we can ask:

A. An ultrasound

B. Celiac arteriography

C. A scanner

D. All answers

E. Only A and B

45. Renal colic may be associated with one or more of the following signs. Choose the wrong answer

A. Pain in the hypochondrium with ascending irradiation

B. Hematuria

C. Increase in size of painful kidney

D. Extravasation of contrast medium on urography

E. Pollakiuria

46. Which of the answers below concerning hematuria due to bladder cancers is exact?

A. It is terminal if the hematuria is of little quantity

B. Is suggestive of an infiltrating lesion

C. Is constant if there are multiple locations

D. Mandates a cystectomy

E. None of the above answers

47. What is the sexual disorder usually encountered after prostate adenectomy?

A. Loss of libido

B. Anerection

C. Anejaculation

D. Retrograde ejaculation

E. Premature ejaculation

48. Among the following examinations, indicate the one that is essential for the diagnosis of prostate cancer.

A. Acid phosphatase levels

B. Intravenous urography

C. Prostate biopsy

D. Carcinoembryonic antigen

E. Prostate ultrasound

49. Testicular cancer can be revealed by: choose the wrong the answer

A. Acute intrascrotal pain

B. Increase in stock market volume

C. Gynecomastia

D. Varicocele

E. Intra-scrotal gravity

50. Which of the following is pathognomonic for abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A. The abdominal systolic mumur

B. Pulsatile abdominal mass

C. A systolic expansion of the mass

D. Pain on aortic compression

E. Intermittent claudication of the lower limbs